• tunetardis@lemmy.ca
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    10 months ago

    Sometimes I think there was a missed opportunity in defining an easy conversion between inches and cm. It is 2.54 cm to 1". Why couldn’t it simply be 2.5? Then a 2x4 from the building supplier could simply be renamed a 5x10. 5.8x11.6 doesn’t quite roll off the tongue as well.

    My understanding is that the metre was inspired by nautical measures? So the distance from pole to equator along sea level is supposedly 10000 km. But that’s pretty approximate, and there is a more rigorous definition that involves the wavelength of a certain type of radiation. But that number is quite arbitrary-sounding. Couldn’t they have chosen it to line up with the imperial system at some level to aid migration? Anyway, that train has left the station and I’ll stop ranting now…

    • xigoi@lemmy.sdf.org
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      10 months ago

      At the time when the metric system was created, imperial units weren’t standardized at all, so if centimeters lined up with one definition of inch, they wouldn’t line up with the many other definitions anyway.

      • tunetardis@lemmy.ca
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        10 months ago

        Point taken. Reading up on it on wikipedia, I love the the legal definition from 1814, wherein one inch = “three grains of sound ripe barley being taken out the middle of the ear, well dried, and laid end to end in a row”.