it can be single-word. my grandparents would switch out of dialect when talking to each other about more modern things, only to drop back to it when changing topic, or indeed just forgetting a word in “modern”. it is very obvious in a situation like that that not only are people using a different word, they are switching mental framework in order to remind themself. it’s also different to word-blindness or whatever it’s called, where you can’t recall what something is called at all. they are seemingly closely related but after having spent time with people who have one or both of these things happen fairly commonly, they are different.
do you have something that shows the opposite? i have no stake in this so it doesn’t really matter if you don’t, but it would be interesting to read a counter.
Dr. Prewitt describes it this way: “It’s basically a way of changing your style, dress, or maybe even language or behavior, in order to match what you think would be appropriate or would make someone else feel comfortable.”
Like, the prior sources are good, people are just taking parts clearly labeled “no citation” and chopping it up till it says what they want it to in a quote.
And not at all relevant to the OP where they explicitly say the use of another language was due to forgetting it in a “common” language…
I understand I probably sound frustrated, and I am.
i don’t think anyone is disputing that meaning, and i understand why that would frustrate you because if the timeline is what you say the widening of the term would be ND erasure. but i also heard it in a linguistic context first, which is why i am not questioning the definition, only the time line.
Code-switching as defined by wikipedia is cool but I learned it with examples like loaned words becoming permanent between languages being one of the major reasons for “code-switching”. Worth noting you rarely see this behavior online comparatively, mostly because of prescriptivist assholes like you that insist they know the entire definition of a word. You’re a lot more likely to hear code-switching than see it. The provided example (someone asking for the salt in another language) counts.
It backs up everything I’ve been saying and absolutely nothing you just said.
Thanks for linking it
Quick edit:
I suggest you read the whole thing, but it’s literally in the first sentence:
code-switching, process of shifting from one linguistic code (a language or dialect) to another, depending on the social context or conversational setting.
Having a brain fart is not a “social context or conversational setting”.
That use of the phrase is older than the sociological one about how people use this ability in social situations. If it is “evolving” into anything, it’s the thing you are claiming is the only way to understand it.
it can be single-word. my grandparents would switch out of dialect when talking to each other about more modern things, only to drop back to it when changing topic, or indeed just forgetting a word in “modern”. it is very obvious in a situation like that that not only are people using a different word, they are switching mental framework in order to remind themself. it’s also different to word-blindness or whatever it’s called, where you can’t recall what something is called at all. they are seemingly closely related but after having spent time with people who have one or both of these things happen fairly commonly, they are different.
Multiple people have said that’s how they use the phrase…
And maybe it is evolving into that…
But no one has provided a link that backs it up, and definitely not that any that says that was the original meaning.
do you have something that shows the opposite? i have no stake in this so it doesn’t really matter if you don’t, but it would be interesting to read a counter.
Besides what’s already been linked?
https://health.clevelandclinic.org/code-switching
Like, the prior sources are good, people are just taking parts clearly labeled “no citation” and chopping it up till it says what they want it to in a quote.
And not at all relevant to the OP where they explicitly say the use of another language was due to forgetting it in a “common” language…
I understand I probably sound frustrated, and I am.
i don’t think anyone is disputing that meaning, and i understand why that would frustrate you because if the timeline is what you say the widening of the term would be ND erasure. but i also heard it in a linguistic context first, which is why i am not questioning the definition, only the time line.
Hi, linguist by degree, app admin by trade
Code-switching as defined by wikipedia is cool but I learned it with examples like loaned words becoming permanent between languages being one of the major reasons for “code-switching”. Worth noting you rarely see this behavior online comparatively, mostly because of prescriptivist assholes like you that insist they know the entire definition of a word. You’re a lot more likely to hear code-switching than see it. The provided example (someone asking for the salt in another language) counts.
Here’s a link since you can’t possibly comprehend being so unbearably wrong on the internet without a link. https://www.britannica.com/topic/code-switching
That’s a good article!
It backs up everything I’ve been saying and absolutely nothing you just said.
Thanks for linking it
Quick edit:
I suggest you read the whole thing, but it’s literally in the first sentence:
Having a brain fart is not a “social context or conversational setting”.
Oh so you’re just a complete dumbass lmao blocked
That use of the phrase is older than the sociological one about how people use this ability in social situations. If it is “evolving” into anything, it’s the thing you are claiming is the only way to understand it.