Both utility bills and restaurant bills are demands to satisfy a debt after the service have been rendered. And in cases of rental properties, it’s refusal to pay even before the service (the legal right to reside in the property) is rendered, since most leases require paying on the first of the month. Why shouldn’t they all just be considered either all civil or all criminal. I don’t understand the inconsistency in legislation.
Country: United States of America
Similarly: your employee steals from you and it’s a crime. You don’t pay your employee and they have to take you to court to get what you owe them.
Sounds like !aboringdystopia@lemmy.world