For 2 and 3, i don’t believe any ethnicity is exempt.
All that statistic will show is that it’s far more dangerous to be a criminal wifebeating drunk than the average population and i haven’t heard of many jew-gangs.
Example- a gang fight causes 100 people to die. One jew is killed from an antisemitic crime.
Now, if the jewish population is 1% of the total population, we would have an equal amount of jewish deaths as the average population, but criminals mostly kill eachother so it’s still obviously more dangerous to be a criminal than a jew but the antisemitic crime weighs more compared to the non-criminal population. So we would have to exclude a whole bunch of murder causes to get a reasonable result
and define those, or you know, just use the antisemitic deaths as a factor from the start.
Were did you get a that list of categories for most murders which doesn’t have non-gang-related crime? Because most crime doesn’t involve gangs.
Are you classifying all organised crime as being gangs (i.e. classifying the Mafia as a “gang”) and all non-gang related but crime related murder under “spontaneous”? Because that’s the only way you’ll end up with with that list of top categories for murders and in that case since those “gangs” aren’t just bands of teenagers from poor backgrounds, I’m pretty sure there are Jewish people in “gangs”.
Further, your entire point rests on the assumption that Jews are less likely to be involved in or with violent criminals than other people - in other words that Jews are different from other people in something which is unrelated to one’s religion, which is pretty straightforward racial prejudice and easily disproven by there being Jews committing crimes, including murder, in Israel (in fact if there is once thing the Genocide in Gaza proves beyond doubt is that some Jews have the capacity of the most horrific behavior - same as everybody else).
Without that prejudiced assumption, then as Jews are equally involved in crime as everybody else the fraction of Jews that end up dead due to that should be the same as everybody else and thus have equal impact on both the rate of Jews being victims of murder and that of the general population, leaving us once again with only anti-semitic violence to explain any higher rate of Jews being murdered.
Frankly, the only thing that I would expect would impact the number to yield a lower rate of Jewish victims of murder compared to the broader population would be that in Europe Jews tend to be Middle Class or above - mainly because they’re well established, compared with for example immigrants from poorer countries - and the probability of being murdered is affected by one’s social status (basically poorer people tend to be murdered more than middle-class people) and even then, if Jews in Europe tend to die less than average because they’re well established and prosperous, that de facto means they’re safe in Europe (certainly safer than the average person), which disproves your original statement - my whole point has always been that Jews can in fact be safe elsewhere than Israel, not that anti-semitism does not exist.
I honestly think that might be a pretty bad metric because most murders belong to three categories.
For 2 and 3, i don’t believe any ethnicity is exempt.
All that statistic will show is that it’s far more dangerous to be a criminal wifebeating drunk than the average population and i haven’t heard of many jew-gangs.
Example- a gang fight causes 100 people to die. One jew is killed from an antisemitic crime. Now, if the jewish population is 1% of the total population, we would have an equal amount of jewish deaths as the average population, but criminals mostly kill eachother so it’s still obviously more dangerous to be a criminal than a jew but the antisemitic crime weighs more compared to the non-criminal population. So we would have to exclude a whole bunch of murder causes to get a reasonable result and define those, or you know, just use the antisemitic deaths as a factor from the start.
Were did you get a that list of categories for most murders which doesn’t have non-gang-related crime? Because most crime doesn’t involve gangs.
Are you classifying all organised crime as being gangs (i.e. classifying the Mafia as a “gang”) and all non-gang related but crime related murder under “spontaneous”? Because that’s the only way you’ll end up with with that list of top categories for murders and in that case since those “gangs” aren’t just bands of teenagers from poor backgrounds, I’m pretty sure there are Jewish people in “gangs”.
Further, your entire point rests on the assumption that Jews are less likely to be involved in or with violent criminals than other people - in other words that Jews are different from other people in something which is unrelated to one’s religion, which is pretty straightforward racial prejudice and easily disproven by there being Jews committing crimes, including murder, in Israel (in fact if there is once thing the Genocide in Gaza proves beyond doubt is that some Jews have the capacity of the most horrific behavior - same as everybody else).
Without that prejudiced assumption, then as Jews are equally involved in crime as everybody else the fraction of Jews that end up dead due to that should be the same as everybody else and thus have equal impact on both the rate of Jews being victims of murder and that of the general population, leaving us once again with only anti-semitic violence to explain any higher rate of Jews being murdered.
Frankly, the only thing that I would expect would impact the number to yield a lower rate of Jewish victims of murder compared to the broader population would be that in Europe Jews tend to be Middle Class or above - mainly because they’re well established, compared with for example immigrants from poorer countries - and the probability of being murdered is affected by one’s social status (basically poorer people tend to be murdered more than middle-class people) and even then, if Jews in Europe tend to die less than average because they’re well established and prosperous, that de facto means they’re safe in Europe (certainly safer than the average person), which disproves your original statement - my whole point has always been that Jews can in fact be safe elsewhere than Israel, not that anti-semitism does not exist.